
Originally Posted by
Jason Levine
[/smugness]
Spoofy, your own argument reveals the problem with relying on the slippery slope: You say "Then, within a few years when attittudes change and the previous standards have been swept away..." (emphasis added). So what has happened? Is the slippery slope responsible for the change or is it the change in attitudes?
I find it particularly interesting that Volokh uses Schlafly's ERA argument as an example. The ERA was never ratified. Where is the slippery slope there? What happened, doubtless to social conservatives' chagrin, was that attitudes changed unassisted by any push down a slope, slippery or otherwise.